2008-10-27, 06:25 PM
The question now is can we use this as proof that Pierce bypasses wdef?
We don't know how wdef is applied, before or after 1/99999 correction, or even before/after the pierce multiplier.
If wdef is applied after the correction the max would habe been 99881.5*1.2^5 = 248537
So now, either pierce bypasses wdef, OR wdef is applied BEFORE the correction (ie the damage would have been 108,598, then minus wdef to 108480, THEN capped to 99,999)
Good job Trumark and Doomas, also nice one on the multiplier Sap. We should really confirm the .9 for IA as well.
We don't know how wdef is applied, before or after 1/99999 correction, or even before/after the pierce multiplier.
If wdef is applied after the correction the max would habe been 99881.5*1.2^5 = 248537
So now, either pierce bypasses wdef, OR wdef is applied BEFORE the correction (ie the damage would have been 108,598, then minus wdef to 108480, THEN capped to 99,999)
Good job Trumark and Doomas, also nice one on the multiplier Sap. We should really confirm the .9 for IA as well.

