2009-10-02, 10:21 AM
tzk221 Wrote:Okay, thanks. Russt explained it to me before but I forgot. =P
Part B of the problem: Basically the same thing but with limits of integration from pi/4 to pi/6.
Yes, I know I can use substitution, but this "proof" was on the exam and we had to figure out what was wrong.
The limits would make everything easier, since -1 evaluated at pi/4 is equal to -1 evaluated at pi/6.
∫tan(x) dx = -1 - (-1) + ∫tan(x) dx = ∫tan(x) dx
(all integral signs here have upper and lower limits)