Wait, wah...? Partial Fractions and Derivative Proof, I think..?

Just bumping this post up to say no. [MENTION=5537]Locked[/MENTION], you have any ideas?

Other than it being a seemingly useless proof, not really.



My friend proved it though. I'll tell him to post here.

By useless, I mean that it doesn't make anything easier really. You could do the second problem (72b) without proving anything and just using regular partial fractions. Though that ruins the spirit of the problem ;p